Showing posts with label Series: Answering Calvinist Proof-texts. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Series: Answering Calvinist Proof-texts. Show all posts

Friday, November 6, 2015

Questions to ask as you approach Romans 9 (with a little help from recording artist Flame) - Answering Calvinist Proof-texts, Part 3

*All scripture quotations are from NASB, unless otherwise noted.


In his song “Context”, Calvinist recording artist Flame says:


“exegesis is the careful systematic
study of scripture for the Christian this should be a habit
but to discover the original intended meaning
of the author to his audience is exegeting”
and:
“a text can never mean what it never meant before
to its original reader or author
so if you run into a difficult passage
and you know the Bible never contradicts itself
then turn the pages to a parallel passage
and just let the scriptures interpret itself”


I’ve used these quotes a number of times in Bible studies I’ve led, both as a Calvinist and later, to help new Christians understand what our first objective is as we come to a text.

As I've said before, Romans 9 was the passage that really led me into Calvinism, and later, the passage that held me there.

In this post I want to look at the two questions which challenged that understanding, and then at a third question which confirmed my new view:

(1) What was Paul's point?

(2) What did Paul’s 1st century audience think he meant?

(3) Are there parallel passages which could bolster our conclusion?


(1) What was Paul's point?

“but to discover the original intended meaning
of the author to his audience is exegeting”

The key which allowed me begin considering other interpretations was when I finally "arced" Romans 9 from beginning to end, rather than stopping around verse 23.

I wasn't alone in skipping over the last few verses of this chapter; in fact it seems to be a common problem among Calvinists. After considering verse 23 in his commentary on Romans, FF Bruce (who considered himself “an impenitent Augustinian and Calvinist” [1]) wrote:
It is a pity that in some schools of theological thought the doctrine of election has been formulated to an excessive degree on the basis of this preliminary state in Paul's present argument, without adequate account being taken of his further exposition of God's purpose in election at the conclusion of the argument (xi. 25-32). [2]

What immediately became clear to me as I arced was the relation of verses 30-33 to the preceding context. Verse 30 began as an inference (“what shall we say, then”) from Paul's thought throughout the rest of the chapter. 



Imagine you are reading an academic article, and you're really having trouble following the author.  You find yourself thinking, "What's your point?"  In this situation, you might well turn to the author's conclusion and find, "Ah ha, so that's what he's been getting at! That's what his argument has been moving towards".

If the author's conclusion contradicted what you had read in his preceding argument, you may rightly conclude that you had misunderstood what he had been saying, and you would re-read the preceding arguments to find out how they fit and build towards that conclusion. [3]

In Romans 9, Paul's conclusion is clear:

What shall we say then? That Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, attained righteousness, even the righteousness which is by faith; but Israel, pursuing a law of righteousness, did not arrive at that law. Why? Because they did not pursue it by faith, but as though it were by works. They stumbled over the stumbling stone, just as it is written,

Behold, I lay in Zion a stone of stumbling and a rock of offense,
And he who believes in Him will not be disappointed.” (30-33)
Paul is very clear regarding why some are saved while others are “separated from Christ” (v 3).  Those who are saved, “attained righteousness […] by faith” (v 31); those who are separated from Christ are separated because they pursued righteousness (or we might say, “pursued a right standing with God”) “as though it were by works” (v 32).

If instead Paul's argument had been, as the Calvinists claim, that "His promise gave expression to an 'electing purpose' (9:11) by which God aims to preserve his complete freedom in determining who will be the beneficiaries of his saving promises, who will be the 'Israel' within Israel (9:6b). His purpose is thus maintained by means of the predestination of individuals to their respective eternal destinies. [...] Within the context of Romans 9, this means that God maintains his sovereign 'purpose of election' by determining, before they are born, who will belong to the 'saved' among Israel",[4] Paul would have concluded and summarized his argument very differently. As another blogger noted, a Calvinist conclusion should read something like:

What shall we say, then? That Gentiles who did not pursue righteousness have attained it, that is, a righteousness that is by faith unconditional election of individuals (with faith merely being evidence of an individual’s prior election); but that Israel who pursued a law that would lead to righteousness did not succeed in reaching that law. Why? Because they did not pursue it by faith, but as if it were based on works had not been unconditionally and individually elected for salvation. They have stumbled over the stumbling stone, as it is written, “Behold, I am laying in Zion a stone of stumbling, and a rock of offense; and whoever is irresistibly caused to believes in him will not be put to shame.” Brothers, my heart’s desire and prayer to God for them is that they may be saved have always been vessels of mercy, otherwise there is no hope for them. [5]

In particular, we would be left wondering why Paul brought up faith at all, if, as John Piper suggests, “Neither the bad willing/running of ‘works’ nor the good willing/running of faith had any influence at all on God’s decision to show mercy”[6] and “‘willing and running’ cannot legitimately be limited in such a way that some willing, like that act of trusting Christ, does ultimately determine God’s bestowal of mercy, namely, the mercy of salvation”[7] (I would point out however, that to trust/have faith in/rely on/believe is not always a type or subset of “willing”; compare, for example, John 1 where “believe” (v12) can be contrasted with both “the will of flesh” and “the will of man” (v 13).  Likewise, on the broader phrase "willing and running", we know from the testimony of the Lord Jesus himself that "to believe in Him whom [God] has sent" is the one "work" that God does require (John 6:28-29).)

The burden of proof, then, is on the Calvinist to explain how Paul's argument fits with his conclusion (and not to stop the exegesis at verse 23, mid-sentence!).


(2) What did Paul’s 1st century audience think he meant?

“a text can never mean what it never meant before
to its original reader or author”

After I saw the conclusion in verses 30-33, I knew I had to re-examine the argument that had led Paul there.  As I considered, it struck me to wonder, “How would the Roman Christians have understood the phrase in verse 11, 'God’s purpose according to His choice' (or “God's purpose of election” ESVUK)?” Would they have understood Paul to mean some pre-temporal decree of certain individuals to salvation?

In the context, Paul seems to be talking about God's purpose in choosing Isaac and Abraham, and choosing Jacob to continue that purpose. So what was his purpose in choosing Abraham?

We find a hint back in chapter 4, where Paul also talks about Abraham and God's purpose; there with regard to circumcision.  He says:

The purpose was to make him the father of all who believe without being circumcised, so that righteousness would be counted to them as well, and to make him the father of the circumcised who are not merely circumcised but who also walk in the footsteps of the faith that our father Abraham had before he was circumcised." (v 11-12)

This led me to look into the Old Testament, to find out if there are any explicit statements there about God's purpose in choosing Abraham.  In fact, we have a very clear statement, and one which fits very nicely with both Romans 4 and Romans 9, in Genesis 18:17-19 (note also, that Paul actually quotes from this very same chapter in Romans 9:9!) bold mine:

The Lord said, “Shall I hide from Abraham what I am about to do,  since Abraham will surely become a great and mighty nation, and in him all the nations of the earth will be blessed? For I have chosen him, so that he may command his children and his household after him to keep the way of the Lord by doing righteousness and justice, so that the Lord may bring upon Abraham what He has spoken about him.

And in fact, we can see the fulfilment of this–that through Jesus all nations are blessed–stated in Romans 9:4, “and from whom is the Christ according to the flesh, who is over all, God blessed forever.” And in verses 24-26:

even us, whom He also called, not from among Jews only, but also from among Gentiles. As He says also in Hosea, “I will call those who were not My people, ‘My people,’ And her who was not beloved, ‘beloved.’”

And it shall be that in the place where it was said to them, ‘you are not My people,’ There they shall be called sons of the living God.”

I had to conclude, then, that the Roman Christians, fluent in the Old Testament, would have understood the choice/election of Abraham in verse 11 to be a reference to God continuing through Jacob and not Esau, his purpose to bless all nations through the Messiah.  This choice of Jacob was not based on anything Jacob had done, but was purely of God’s sovereign choice.  It had nothing to do with Jacob’s own eternal state, which would still be determined by his faith in God to bring about what He had promised, just as it was for Abraham (Rom 4:21).
As NT Wright put it:

This was never an abstract ‘doctrine of predestination’, attempting to plumb the mysteries of why some people (in general, without reference to Israel) hear and believe the gospel and others do not. Paul never encourages speculation of that sort. Rather, it was a way of saying, very specifically, that the fact of Israel’s election (starting with the choice and call of Abraham) had always been there to deal with the sin of the world; that Israel’s election had always involved Israel being narrowed down, not just to Isaac and then to Jacob, but to a hypoleimma, a ‘remnant’, a ‘seed’; and that this ‘remnant’ itself would be narrowed down to a single point, to the Messiah himself, who would himself be ‘cast away’ so that the world might be redeemed. [8]

(3) Are there parallel passages which could bolster these conclusions?

“so if you run into a difficult passage
and you know the Bible never contradicts itself
then turn the pages to a parallel passage
and just let the scriptures interpret itself”

I’ve mentioned a few parallels already, so here I will dig into verses 19-23:

You will say to me then, “Why does He still find fault? For who resists His will?” On the contrary, who are you, O man, who answers back to God? The thing molded will not say to the molder, “Why did you make me like this,” will it? Or does not the potter have a right over the clay, to make from the same lump one vessel for honorable use and another for common use? What if God, although willing to demonstrate His wrath and to make His power known, endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction? And He did so to make known the riches of His glory upon vessels of mercy, which He prepared beforehand for glory

When I first turned from Calvinism and began to email back and forth with one of my more studied Calvinist friends, I offered my alternative interpretation of these verses, to which he responded, “we need to walk through this. I cannot understand this text in any other way than to understand that God has indeed predestined before the foundations of the world that there would be vessels of wrath prepared for destruction, for His own glory.


First, I had to point out to him the leaps my friend had made:
(1) There is no mention of "before the foundations of the world" anywhere in the passage; and
(2) He had moved from “God… endured with much patience” to “God … predestined … vessels of wrath … for destruction, for His own glory.


Next, I questioned how he understood a few other New Testament texts which seemed to me to carry the same idea: Ephesians 2, Romans 2:4-5, 2 Peter 3:9 and 2 Tim 2:20-21.

In Ephesians 2:3-5 we see that we “were by nature children of wrath, even as the rest. But God, being rich in mercy […] made us alive together with Christ (by grace you have been saved)” – in other words, we were vessels of wrath but became vessels of mercy.

In Romans 2:4-5, we see that God’s patience is meant to turn vessels of wrath into vessels of mercy; those who refuse to repent are preparing themselves for destruction:

Or do you think lightly of the riches of His kindness and tolerance and patience, not knowing that the kindness of God leads you to repentance? But because of your stubbornness and unrepentant heart you are storing up wrath for yourself in the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God

Likewise in 2 Peter 3:9, “The Lord is not slow about His promise, as some count slowness, but is patient toward you, not wishing for any to perish but for all to come to repentance.”

And 2 Tim 2:20-21, perhaps the clearest of all, says:

Now in a large house there are not only gold and silver vessels, but also vessels of wood and of earthenware, and some to honor and some to dishonor. Therefore, if anyone cleanses himself from these things, he will be a vessel for honor, sanctified, useful to the Master, prepared for every good work.

As Calvinist Bill MacDonald wrote, against the common Calvinist view, "God does not prepare vessels of wrath for destruction, but he does prepare vessels of mercy for glory".[9]

FF Bruce takes much the same approach:

While Paul will allow no questioning of God's right to do what He will with His own, he lets his emphasis fall, not on God's wrath towards the reprobate, but rather the postponement of His wrath against men who have long since become ripe for destruction.  As has been pointed out earlier (2:4), the mercy and forbearance of God are intended  to afford men time for repentance; if, instead, they harden their hearts yet more, as Pharaoh did after repeated respites, they are simply storing up an increasing weight of retribution for themselves against the day of requital. [10]


Jeremiah 18, where Paul's illustration seems to have originated, also confirms this.  There, the Prophet Jeremiah watches a potter as "the vessel that he was making of clay was spoiled in the hand of the potter; so he remade it into another vessel, as it pleased the potter to make" (v 4).  The Lord tells the Prophet:
“Can I not, O house of Israel, deal with you as this potter does?” declares the Lord. “Behold, like the clay in the potter’s hand, so are you in My hand, O house of Israel. At one moment I might speak concerning a nation or concerning a kingdom to uproot, to pull down, or to destroy it; if that nation against which I have spoken turns from its evil, I will relent concerning the calamity I planned to bring on it. Or at another moment I might speak concerning a nation or concerning a kingdom to build up or to plant it;  if it does evil in My sight by not obeying My voice, then I will think better of the good with which I had promised to bless it. So now then, speak to the men of Judah and against the inhabitants of Jerusalem saying, ‘Thus says the Lord, “Behold, I am fashioning calamity against you and devising a plan against you. Oh turn back, each of you from his evil way, and reform your ways and your deeds.”’ But they will say, ‘It’s hopeless! For we are going to follow our own plans, and each of us will act according to the stubbornness of his evil heart.’ (v 6-12)
If a vessel of wrath, prepared for destruction, "turns from its evil" it becomes a vessel of mercy.  And like in 2 Peter 3, God longs for it to be so: “Behold, I am fashioning calamity against you and devising a plan against you. Oh turn back, each of you from his evil way, and reform your ways and your deeds.” (v 11, and cf Romans 11:20 & 23)
Endnotes:
[1] FF Bruce, "Original Forward and Comments", in Paul Marston & Roger Forster, God's Strategy in Human History. (you can see his comments Google Preview here).
[2] FF Bruce, The Epistle of Paul to the Romans, p 190 [Bruce].  In John Piper's book, The Justification of God, which is generally considered the leading Calvinist exposition of Romans 9, he too stops his examination at verse 23.
[3] Dr Greg Boyd, in his excellent sermon on Romans 9, similarly argues that Paul's conclusion does not fit the Calvinist interpretation.
[4] John Piper, The Justification of God at 218 [Piper].
[5] Kingswood Hart, “New Calvinist Bible – Romans 8-11” (March 27, 2014), link.
[6] Piper supra note 3 at 153.  
[7] Ibid at 157.  However, in the next sentence, Piper correctly points out, “Faith is indeed a sine qua non of Salvation; Rom 9:16, therefore, necessarily implies that the act of faith is ultimately owing to the prevenient grace of God.” But then gets around this by stating, “But this is a theological inference, however true, beyond Paul’s explicit concern here. There is no reference at all to faith in Rom 9 until verse 30.”
[8] NT Wright, Paul and the Faithfulness of God. As quoted by Michael F Bird, “N.T. Wright on Election in PFG” (October 18, 2013), link.
[9] William MacDonald, Believer’s Bible Commentary, p 1719.
[10] Bruce supra note 2.

Wednesday, November 4, 2015

Answering Calvinist Proof-texts, Part 2 - Acts 13:48

It is a single word in this verse which is used to support the Calvinist interpretation: "appointed".  It should be noted at the outset, as the early Arminian exegete Adam Clarke points out:

Now, we should be careful to examine what a word means, before we attempt to fix its meaning. Whatever τεταγμενοι may mean, which is the word we translate ordained [or appointed], it is neither προτεταγμενοι nor προορισμενοι which the apostle uses, but simply τεταγμενοι , which includes no idea of pre-ordination or pre-destination of any kind.


Clarke continues (link, bold mine):


And if it even did, it would be rather hazardous to say that all those who believed at this time were such as actually persevered unto the end, and were saved unto eternal life. But, leaving all these precarious matters, what does the word τεταγμενος mean? The verb ταττω or τασσω signifies to place, set, order, appoint, dispose; hence it has been considered here as implying the disposition or readiness of mind of several persons in the congregation, such as the religious proselytes mentioned Acts 13:43, who possessed the reverse of the disposition of those Jews who spake against those things, contradicting and blaspheming, Acts 13:45. Though the word in this place has been variously translated, yet, of all the meanings ever put on it, none agrees worse with its nature and known signification than that which represents it as intending those who were predestinated to eternal life: this is no meaning of the term, and should never be applied to it.

Below I will look at 3 different ways to render the Greek word: "in line for", "disposed", and "appointed".  As you will notice, these are not really exclusive understandings or interpretations, but rather they fit together very nicely, each providing support for the others.


"in line for"

Dr David Gooding, professor emeritus of Old Testament Greek at Queen’s University Belfast, offered an interpretation of this passage in his series, "The Glorious Gospel of the Blessed God". I find his explanation especially helpful because of the way he brings in prevenient grace. (It should be noted that in this sense, the Arminian view is not altogether different from a Calvinist understanding; in both, it is God who takes the initiative. It is different from a Calvinist interpretation, of course, in that it includes no "decree").

Here is what he says (Q&A audio at about 12:30):

Does the term "those that were appointed to eternal life believed" mean that they were thus appointed by God's pre-choice; pre-determination, if you like? The matter will turn on two things:

(1) The context is contrasting the Jews of the Synagogue who, having heard the Gospel, rejected it seriously. And Paul and company shook out the dust of their shoes and said "Seeing you judge yourselves unworthy of eternal life, we turn to the gentiles". They were Jews making their own decision; coming to their own judgement, regarding themselves as "unworthy of eternal life" and they wouldn't have it. That was how they judged the situation; they were Jews.  In contrast to that many gentiles believed--not all the gentiles, but those that were.  

(2) And here you, to take it seriously, have to consider the possible translations of that Greek word. That Greek word is, in military context, used in middle unpassive in this kind of sentence: that a detachment of troops form themselves up into, say, battle formation, or line of march.  And so it would be used like that of a squad of troops taking that particular formation.  We could, therefore, rightly take it that those that were "lined up for".  

Lined up how? Well, I myself quite believe that when it comes to the work of salvation, God always takes the initiative. It is not that humans come to God saying, "Please consider saving me", and God replies, "I hadn't thought of doing any such thing but I'll consider your application".  God always takes the initiative.  And what is more, as any practical evangelist will tell you, as they go to this place or that, they will find people that by God's gracious Holy Spirit, have been worked upon, and their conscience has been aroused.  Maybe they haven't gotten to the point of complete illumination but they're stopping to think. And God, in His mercy, brings a preacher to them, and these folks have been prepared. And when they hear the Gospel, they believe. That doesn't mean that nobody else in the town is ever going to get saved. Some are not just ready yet, so to speak.   

I take it that what Paul is saying is that these--"those among the gentiles who were 'in line for'"--they either had lined themselves up for, or God's gracious Spirit, or both, had been working in them. And now when they finally heard the Gospel, they believed.  

Dr Greg Boyd provides a similar explanation, writing:

Luke does not specify when the Gentiles who believed were “destined for eternal life.” Calvinists rightfully point out that the Gentiles’ faith followed their being “destined for eternal life” but mistakenly assume that this “destiny” was decided by God from before creation. The text only requires us to believe that the Spirit of God had been at work preparing the hearts of all who did not resist him to accept the Gospel when they heard it.

God knows our heart before we express it through our words or through our decisions (Ps. 139:2–4). On this basis the Lord could assure Paul before his missionary endeavor at Corinth that “there are many in this city who are my people” (viz. whose hearts have been opened and who will therefore believe your message) (Acts 18:10).

So too, Lydia listened intently to Paul’s Gospel because the Lord had already “opened her heart” (Acts 16:14). Those Gentiles who did not resist the Spirit’s work in their life were “ripe” for the message of Paul and Barnabas. They were already “destined for eternal life” and thus accepted the Good News when it was preached to them.



Others I have found which also note the military understanding include the Benson Commentary:

In the Greek classics, in its passive form, it is generally used of men, who, having been appointed for some military expedition, (and set in their proper offices, as it is rendered, Luke 7:8,) were drawn up in battle array for that purpose. So that it expresses, or refers, at once to the action of their commander, marshalling them, and to their own presenting themselves in their proper places, to be led on to the intended expedition. So Dr. Doddridge, who adds, “This I take to be precisely its sense here, and have therefore chosen the word determined, as having an ambiguity something like that in the original. The meaning of the sacred penman seems to be, that all who were deeply and seriously concerned about their eternal happiness, (whether that concern began now, or were of longer date,) openly embraced the gospel: for surely none could be said to believe who did not make an open profession of Christianity.” In a similar sense, the clause is understood by Dr. Hammond, who renders it, As many as were disposed for eternal life believed: and by Dr. Heylin, whose translation and gloss upon it is, As many as were in a fit disposition for eternal life believed. Dr. Waterland also, and many of the most learned expositors, interpret it in the same manner, namely, as describing those who were, at this time,in a disposition to comply with the terms on which God, by his apostle, now offered them eternal life; that is, to repent, believe, and obey the gospel.

Barnes' Notes on the Bible mentions, "The word τάσσω tassō, properly means 'to place' - that is, to place in a certain rank or order. Its meaning is derived from arranging or disposing a body of soldiers in regular military order." And the Expositor's Greek Testament, says:

Some take the word as if middle, not passive: “as many as had set themselves unto eternal life,” and in support of this Rendall refers to 1 Corinthians 16:15, ἔταξαν ἑαυτοὺς (see also Blass, in loco). The rendering here given by Rendall may be adopted without pressing the military metaphor in the verb, as has sometimes been done[...]

(more from Expositor's below).


"disposed"

Dr Brian Abasciano has written extensively on this interpretation (see the links at the end of this post), so I won't dwell on it too long.

In one of the earlier posts Dr Abasciano wrote on this verse, he notes (link):

And the most authoritative lexicon for New Testament studies (abbreviated BDAG) does not take the verb in question to mean “appoint,” but construes it under the meaning of “to put in place.” It is not surprising, then, that the distinguished biblical scholar Henry Alford argued for the rendering, “as many as were disposed,” in his well respected 4 volume work, The Greek Testament. (John Piper of all people sings Alford’s praises thus: “When I’m stumped with a . . . grammatical or syntactical or logical flow [question] in Paul, I go to Henry Alford. Henry Alford mostly answers-he . . . comes closer more consistently than any other human commentator to asking my kinds of questions.”) Alford’s treatment of Acts 13:48 can be found in this volume available online.

Secondly, I found it interesting that the popular 17th century Calvinist Matthew Henry considers the translation “disposed” in his commentary (underline mine, link):

God gave this grace to believe to all those among them who were ordained to eternal life (for whom he had predestinated, them he also called, Rom. 8:30); or, as many as were disposed to eternal life, as many as had a concern about their eternal state, and aimed to make sure of eternal life, believed in Christ, in whom God hath treasured up that life (1 Jn. 5:11), and who is the only way to it; and it was the grace of God that wrought it in them. Thus all those captives, and those only, took the benefit of Cyrus’s proclamation, whose spirit God had raised up to build the house of the Lord which is in Jerusalem, Ezra 1:5. Those will be brought to believe in Christ that by his grace are well disposed to eternal life, and make this their aim.

I'll only add that, often, much is made by Calvinists of the fact that most English translations use the word "appointed". On this, Dr Abasciano has said (link):
It can easily be chalked up to tradition or failure to attend to exegetical details. Translations are not authoritative and translators can rarely exegete the text in detail given the focus of their task. This point [...] is effectively countered by the fact that the most authoritative lexicon for New Testament studies (abbreviated BDAG)* translates the word differently than all those translations.

"Appointed"

Finally, some who hold to an Arminian interpretation still retain the translation as "appointed", but understand it in a corporate, rather than individual, sense.  The Expositor's Greek Testament seems to take this view when it says:

there is no countenance here for the absolutum decretum of the Calvinists, since Acts 13:46 had already shown that the Jews had acted through their own choice. The words are really nothing more than a corollary of St. Paul’s ἀναγκαῖον: the Jews as a nation had been ordained to eternal life—they had rejected this election—but those who believed amongst the Gentiles were equally ordained by God to eternal life, and it was in accordance with His divine appointment that the Apostles had turned to them.

(Expositor's then considers the alternative "middle, not passive" understanding as noted above).

In The New Chosen People, William Klein takes a similar approach (p 109-110):

Without question, the basic sense of tassō is to set or appoint. The passive voice seems to point to God as the agent. However, we question that Luke intends this to point to some pretemporal election of certain ones so that they, and only they, come to believe. This would fit poorly in the context. The Jews' rejection of the Word of God accounted for their failure to gain eternal life. They did not consider themselves worthy of eternal life (v. 46).

What a contrast to the Gentiles who, upon hearing the good news, rejoice, honor the Word, and believe. Surely in this context Luke does not intend to restrict the application of salvation only to those appointed. Rather he shows that salvation's sphere of application must expand from only Jews to believing Gentiles. We believe that [FF] Bruce misread the context. The key issue concerns whether people accept or reject the word of the Lord. Those who reject disqualify themselves from eternal life. On the other side, Luke describes believers as "those who were appointed for eternal life". Neil says of our text:

It is not in any sense narrowly predestinarian, as if some are scheduled for salvation and others for damnation; the Bible constantly stresses the element of free choice: we may accept or reject the Word of God. In this case the Jews of Antioch as a whole rejected the offer of eternal life, while some--but by no means all--of the Gentiles accept it. Those who do accept the Gospel fulfil the purpose of God that all men shall be saved, and by their response they show that they are worthy to be numbered with the saints in heaven.

Thus the Believers are "the appointed ones," a title that has obvious parallels to "the chosen ones" we saw in Mk 13:20, 22, 27, par. As did the people of God in the Old Testament, so Christians also considered themselves "the elect." Perhaps we have here a parallel expression. The "appointed" believed. Luke views those who have been appointed as a corporate group; they, as believers, stand over against those who rejected the message.



Further Reading:




Related posts:

Recent Posts: Beyond Calvinism